Coding
Hospital Visit
(Volume
103)
The
Question (from
Volume 102):
Gayle,
Quick question,
I had a doctor who did an in hospital office visit.
We coded it 99221 with a
place of service of 21. Medicare denied, can
you give us a heads up
on what code would work better?
Thanks,
Alice
The
Answer (Another perspective from Dr.
Horsman):
POS 21 is in-patient
hospital.
CPT 99221 is an
initial hospital examination by the ADMITTING
physician. All I can
guess is that the patient might have already been
admitted by someone else (who
billed Medicare for that)....as such, perhaps they
expect to see your doctor
bill as a consultant, or using "subsequent
hospital care" codes, CPT 99231-99233.
Rick Horsman, DPM
Olympia, WA
Coding
Bledsoe Boots
(Volume 103)
The Question:
Hi,
Does anyone have
a suggestion on what HCPC's code to use for a
Bledsoe Boot w/achilles,
hi-top? We used the suggested manufacturers
code of L4386, but were
barely reimbursed the price we paid for the boot.
Thanks!
Patti
The
Answer:
L4386 is the
correct code for the cast boot. Bledsoe does
tend to be one of the
more expensive cast boots and one of the better ones
but unfortunately you will
be reimbursed the same as if you purchased one of
the less expensive ones.
Reimbursement
for Medicare is typically in the $120-130 range.
Scott
Schroeder, DPM
Wenatchee, WA
Coding
Procedures with E/M
(Volume 103)
The Question:
Hi Gayle,
I would like to
subscribe to the FootZine. Please advice me the
necessary steps. I also
have a coding question and seek your advice. Can
you bill an office visit with the code 10061 and an
office visit with code 11730
with modifier 25 for E/M visit?
Thanks,
SG
The
Answer:
If the patient
is a new patient this will typically be allowed due
to the work-up necessary
to make the decision for the procedure. The
current explanation in the 2005 CPT manual is as
follows: "The E/M service may be prompted
by the symptom or condition for which the procedure
and /or service was provided. As such,
different diagnoses are not required for reporting
of the E/M services on
the same date." However if a patient is
there for a follow up
visit and just comes in and no significant work-up
was performed and the procedure
was performed then charging an E/M in combination
would be inappropriate.
Scott Schroeder,
DPM
Coding
for "Accu-Mold"
(Volume 103)
The Question:
We use the
product "ACCU-MOLD", a moldable silicone
compound, often in our office.
Is this item billable to insurance carriers?
If so, any idea what the HCPCS
would be?
Thank you,
Cindy
The
Answer:
It is my own
opinion that silicone moulds are not a covered
benefit, and that they
should either be absorbed within the E/M of the
office visit (if you're a REALLY
nice guy... this is expensive material), or charged
to the patient.
Coding
Orthoses
(Volume 103)
The Question:
Dear Ms. Johnson,
I am a new
billing company. I have been informed that CPT
code L3020 will not be
used any longer. Is this true, please help.
Thanks,
Becky Proffitt
Center for Primary
Care
The
Answer:
Regarding CPT/HCPCS
codes for orthoses.... it is my personal opinion
that the correct code is CPT L3000, charged for each
side. I haven't used L3020 in years.
Harry Goldsmith is
pursuing the issue of clarifying CPT and HCPCS
coding; stripping out codes that have no reason to
be there, and only confuse the issue. This
would be one of them.
Rick Horsman,
DPM
Coding
Metatarsal Osteotomy & Cheilectomy
(Volume 103)
The
Question:
Hey Gayle thanks
for all the great advice!!! I have a coding
question that actually may be too long for the email
but maybe you could forward it to Dr. Horsman
or Dr. Schroeder. You can give them my email
address if needed.
I want to know
if I am using the correct code for the correction of
hallux limitus.
To cut it
short---the op note says an incision was made over
the dorsum of the first
metatarsophalangeal joint....metatarsal head was
then exposed the medial eminence
was removed....the dorsal eminence was also
transected (very arthritic with
chronic changes)....approximately 1 cm proximal to
the articular surface a wedge
of bone was cut from the dorsum of the 1st
metatarsal head.....screw was
used to fixate the
capital fragment.......
Is 28289 the code I
would use?????
Thanks for any help!
Stacy
The
Answer:
Terminology is
awkward.... but this originally sounded like a
cheilectomy, ....but then added the decompressional
metatarsal osteotomy.
The cheilectomy
(resection of the prominent bone) would be
incidental to the metatarsal
osteotomy. This is a procedure which I
commonly perform myself.
Applicable coding....
CPT 28296
Rick Horsman,
DPM
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Coding
Peripheral Neuropathy
(Volume
102)
The
Question
(from Volume 101):
Can
you please give me the ICD-9 code for peripheral
neuropathy with evidence of callus formation?
Thank you,
Cindy
The
Answer (Another perspective from Dr.
Schroeder):
Gayle,
I think what Cindy was referring to is the billing for
Diabetic shoes and Insoles. One of the criteria
is "Peripheral neuropathy with evidence of
callous formation". To be reimbursed for
the shoes and insoles you can put down the diagnosis
for a callous (700) but what DMERC is really looking
for is the diabetic neuropathy code. In this
case ICD-9: 250.60 or 250.61. When I bill
for the shoes and/or insoles I will use the 250.__
codes alone since when I used other codes in
combination it seemed to confuse the matter and we had
more denials. This also holds true with the
"History of pre-ulcerative callous" and
"Foot Deformity" conditions that qualify a
Diabetic patient for Therapeutic shoes.
Scott
Schroeder,
DPM
Wenatchee, WA
Coding
and Review of Systems
(Volume 102)
The Question
(from Volume 101):
"....
Lately in our office we have the discussion regarding
ROS when doing our charting. We are split, does
the ROS have to pertain with why the patient is at the
office? If so how do we ever get the 10 ROS, as
needed for some OV? ( I doubt if you can get all for a
podiatrist visit.) If no, do the ROS need to be
listed as why? Such as HEET- positive for
contacts?"
Brenda Reed
The
Answers:
*_* Editor's
note: The following is an edited email
"discussion" between Drs. Horsman and
Schroeder and myself in response to Brenda's
questions. ~ Gayle *_*
I think Rick will be more up to speed with this
one regarding "bullets" needed for office
visit levels. ....They were revamping all of
that and I haven't heard the latest. ... What
she really meant was HEENT which stands for head,
eyes, ears, nose and throat.
Scott Schroeder, DPM
*_* *_*
There IS no new E/M bullet information. The
parties have not been able to agree on bullets, etc.
There was a strong move to switch to a series of
vignettes/clinical examples, representative of
anticipated types of presentations, and the levels of
work-up through appropriate. That fell apart, too.
So, in the meantime, the 1995 and 1997 E/M guidelines
are the best currently available system.
This is a weblink that will provide both the 1995 and
1997 E/M guidelines, which would include the bullets.
http://www.cms.hhs.gov/physicians/cciedits
Rick Horsman, DPM
Olympia, WA
*_* *_*
Gayle,
The ROS point is "relevant"
The ROS must be appropriate for the clinical
presentation.
The extent of ROS one might generate for an 18 year
old healthy male with a new acute ingrown nail is VERY
different from that for an 85 year old with a long
history of diabetes with renal disease, peripheral
neuropathy, and poor circulation, with an otherwise
similar presentation.
It is NOT relevant or appropriate to generate a huge
ROS on the young healthy patient, but very appropriate
on the elder patient with multi-system disease.
So, the answer to the question is perhaps not as
simple as one might like. However, that being
stated, it is my own personal belief that, as a
physician specializing in the lower extremity, and
dealing with issues of relevance, I can not conceive
of ANY way of meeting the necessary criteria for a
99204 new patient visit- for virtually ANY
presentation.
But since established patient visits must only meet
two of the three components for an E/M, I can easily
see the ability to meet the criteria for a 99214
established patient visit, although these should be
much less frequent than 99213 established patient
visits, which are the most frequently-billed E/M
services for ALL physicians of ALL types
I hope that answers the question.
Rick Horsman, DPM
*_* *_*
Thanks, Rick,
Based on what you've said here, we (readers) could
conclude that addressing HEENT would be inappropriate
and over-reaching in a DPM's review of systems for an
initial visit?
~ Gayle
*_* *_*
Precisely.
I'm sure there is some rare situation out there in
which it is absolutely appropriate for a podiatrist to
do a ROS of EENT, but that should be the singular
exception. Some years ago, a doc .... sent me a
work-up for a straightforward ingrown nail in an
otherwise healthy adult. The computer-generated
note was over 8 pages long. His question....
does this record support CPT 99205? He wanted to
build up a series of templates macros for every likely
presentation, and bill the highest level E/M for
everything. The charting might do it, but it
wasn't relevant or medically necessary. I think
Harry [Goldsmith] termed "medically
necessary" as matching the level of/intensity of
the service to the need. Low risk things don't
need high risk work-ups.
Now, this is fact.... there is a local ENT who refers
me patients for management of tinea and onychomycosis.
He read somewhere some years ago that some/many?
patients who have mycotic infections in the lower
extremities can develop an "id" reaction,
resulting in chronic dermatitis in the ear. It
doesn't respond to anything other than effective
treatment of the mycosis. Now, in THAT instance,
ROS of EENT might actually be relevant (and I did NOT
make that up).
Rick
Coding Resection
of Bone
(Volume 102)
The Question:
Hi, I have a
question. I have noticed one of our Drs coding
his own CPT codes. And when we do not get the
same thing we second guess our training. For
instance .. one of our procedures is metatarsectomy of
the 2nd right toe and debridement of wound.
The op note states that there is a floating fragment
of the 2nd metatarsal likely secondary to
osteomyelitis related fracture, presents for
debridement of the wound and necrotic bone.
He later goes on to say that the fragment was removed
and was sent for culture, the bone bed and the
granulation tissue with in it was also swabbed for
bone bed. The granulation tissue was sharply
debrided, with ronguers back to bleeding ossified
bone, which req debridement of two additional cm of
the shaft of the metatarsal,
The Dr codes are 28140.
We choose metatarsectomy as the approach, would that
be correct? We do get an unlisted code for the
procedure but the Dr debrides done to bone.
Clearly confused.
Tausha, RHIT
The
Answers:
Based upon what was
stated, I think that partial resection of bone,
metatarsal (CPT 28122) is a more accurate code for the
services performed, rather than metatarsectomy.
Rick Horsman
Olympia, WA
I concur with Rick.
Scott Schroeder, DPM
Wenatchee, WA
Coding Hospital
Visits
(Volume 102)
The
Question:
Gayle,
Quick question, I had a doctor who did an in hospital
office visit. We coded it 99221 with a
place of service of 21. Medicare denied,
can you give us a heads up on what code would work
better?
Thanks,
Alice
The
Answer:
I would recommend
99231 (Subsequent Hospital care - 15 minutes).
If this was an initial in-patient consult 20 minute -
99251.
Place of Service - 21 appears correct.
Scott Schroeder, DPM
Coding Debridement
of Verruca
(Volume 102)
The Question:
Hi,
What exactly is the correct coding for a debridement
of a verruca? I used to bill 11000 for a 709.8
but Medicare is now saying that is the wrong diagnosis
code.
Thank you for any help you can furnish me.
Sincerely,
Esther
Miami, Florida
The
Answers:
*_*
Editor's note: This answer also takes the form
of an edited email "discussion" between Drs.
Horsman and Schroeder and myself in response to
Esther's question. ~ Gayle *_*
In our region if a verruca is painful we utilize
11040 with the diagnosis code combination of either
700 or 701.1 (callous/hyperkeratosis) and 729.5
(pain).
The reason being you would be debriding the
hyperkeratosis associated with the verruca. If
you are using a chemical agent or curretting the
verruca in toto 17000 would be appropriate. You
would follow your region's guidelines for treatment of
painful lesions which typically should cover verruca.
Scott Schroeder, DPM
*_* *_*
For Medicare, the answer to this question depends
upon your state of residence, and the corresponding
policies regarding debridement of lesions.
Both Scott and I practice in Washington State, for
whom the Medicare carrier is Noridian.
I am currently preparing for a day-long seminar on
coding issues in the Noridian states, so had the
opportunity to update my knowledge based upon most
current Noridian policies
CPT coding differs depending upon method of treatment
of the verruca.
Within all the Noridian states, these are the
permitted codes for treatment of a verruca:
If it is "shaved": CPT 11305 series
If it is excised (and closed with suture): CPT
11420 series
If the lesion is "destroyed".. an
interesting term...this includes use of an acid,
cyrotherapy, chemotherapy, use of a laser,
currettement... the coding is the CPT 1700 series
But that's for Noridian states. You must look at the
Medicare LCDs (formerly called LMRPs) for management
of painful skin lesions, etc., for the state of
Florida.
For the record.... CPT 11000 is absolutely the wrong
CPT code for a verrucae...... IF it was paid by
Florida Medicare in the past, it must have been in
error.
Rick Horsman, DPM
Olympia, WA
*_* *_*
Taking a closer look at the diagnosis code used,
if one adheres to the rule to use the most accurate
and appropriate diagnosis, and the lesion is a verruca....
ICD-9 709.8 "epithelial hyperplasia, vesicular
eruption, or menstrual dermatosis" would be a
real stretch.... Maybe they transposed the numbers.
I personally have never used that code for anything;
and in fact, have never ever seen it used in any of
the claims I have reviewed.
Rick Horsman, DPM
*_* *_*
The recommended Dx code to use in conjunction with
CPT for most forms of treatment, aside from the
examples that Scott gave, would still be 078.19 then?
~ Gayle
*_* *_*
Yup.
I'm hoping that the other stated code was either a
misprint or transposition. To volitionally and
knowingly come up with such a code for a verruca would
be very troublesome, and prompt an auditor to look
very, very closely.
Rick Horsman, DPM
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